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Post by johnr on Mar 27, 2008 10:31:26 GMT -3
¿por qué es 'entiendas' y no 'entiendes'? Supongo que da más duda que no entiende bien.
Hombre 1: parece que no entiendas nada.
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Post by sendai on Mar 27, 2008 13:58:33 GMT -3
"Entiendas" sounds odd in that sentence to me. B&B says that the subjunctive is occasionally used after "parecer que", but I think we non-natives should stick with the indicative.
BTW, I just said that sentence to my wife (who is from Argentina), and she gave me a funny look!
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Post by Noelia on Mar 27, 2008 15:53:30 GMT -3
Sounds totally wrong to me too....
I would either say that in indicative or if I use subjunctive I would use past subjunctive:
- Parece que no entendieras nada.
(which is wrong beccause you should use "pareceria" in that case, but it's an acceptable mistake)
Could it have been a typo perhaps?
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Post by johnr on Mar 28, 2008 5:30:25 GMT -3
Gracias. Voy a escuchar el podcast otra vez. Pero vi la frase en la transcripción del podcast.
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