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Post by Noelia on Jun 24, 2008 14:47:12 GMT -3
This is going to be a silly question, but it's driving me crazy. There's an old song that says:
"I can see clearly now the rain has gone.."
And I would like to know how can I tell what the author wanted to say>
1) I can see clearly now because the rain has gone
or
2) I can see clearly now that the rain has gone (meaning, now he can see that there is no more rain)
The first one is the obvious one, but the second one does have a metaphorical meaning, if you will, too...
Do you ever think about stuff like this, or you just accept the song as it is, and it's because it's not my first language that I analyze all these stupid details?
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Post by johnr on Jun 25, 2008 5:18:21 GMT -3
Aquí está la letra de la canción, por la que diría que 'tu frase' tiene un sentido metafórico, o sea que la lluvia tal vez no sea real pero solo existe en la mente.
I can see clearly now, the rain has gone I can see all obstacles in my way Gone are the dark clouds that had me blind It`s gonna be a bright, bright sunshiny day It`s gonna be a bright, bright sunshiny day
I think I can make it now, the pain has gone All of the bad feelings have disappeared Here ist the rainbow I`ve been praying for It`s gonna be a bright, bright sunshiny day It`s gonna be a bright, bright sunshiny day
Look all around, there`s nothing but blue sky Look straight ahead, nothing but blue sky
repeat 1th verse
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